DES-1D11 Specialist, Technology Architect | Midrange Storage Solutions Exam

Overview
This exam is a qualifying exam for the Specialist-Technology Architect, Midrange Storage (DECS-TA) track.

This exam tests the candidate’s knowledge to architect and size solutions for Dell EMC Unity and SC Series systems. This exam also tests the candidate’s knowledge of key product features of both of these storage systems.

Dell EMC provides free practice tests to assess your knowledge in preparation for the exam. Practice tests allow you to become familiar with the topics and question types you will find on the proctored exam. Your results on a practice test offer one indication of how prepared you are for the proctored exam and can highlight topics on which you need to study and train further. A passing score on the practice test does not guarantee a passing score on the certification exam.

Products
Products likely to be referred to on this exam include but are not limited to:
 Dell EMC Unity(All Flash Array, Hybrid, VSA)
 SC Series

ExamTopics
Topics likely to be covered on this exam include:

Dell EMC Midrange Architectures (25%)
 Identify and describe the Unity hardware (e.g., enclosures, I/O components, storage media options, etc.)
 Explain Unity storage resources and features (e.g., dynamic pools, RAID functions)
 Identify and describe SC Series storage resources, connectivity options (e.g., RAID, Consistency Groups, SSD, HDD options), and use cases
 Identify and describe the various controller options available in the SC Series models

Dell EMC Midrange Product Solutions (42%)
 Identify key features of the SC Series operating system
 Describe SC Series cross-platform replication functionality and use cases
 Describe how to provision and access Unity storage; including Block, Files, and VMware datastores
 Identify Unity advanced features for Block storage; e.g, FAST Suite, D@RE, host I/O limit availability, thin clones
 Identify Unity advanced features for File storage; e.g, IP Multi-tenancy, Advanced Static Routing, IP Packet Reflect, etc.
 Identify and describe Unity Data Protection (e.g., Snapshots, Replication, and Snapshot Replication architecture) solutions and use cases
 Describe Unity Data Mobility features, requirements, and use cases
 Compare and contrast similar features between the Unity and SC Series products

Dell EMC Midrange Best Practices, Sizing, and Design (33%)
 Apply Dell EMC midrange best practice recommendations for data service, system, storage, and host application configurations
 Identify and describe the sizing and design considerations for Unity and SC Series features
 Identify and describe how to size and design a midrange solution for performance, capacity, security, and resilience
 Describe the data gathering methods to size and design an SC Series solution
 Identify and describe the tools and resources available to size and design Unity and SC Series solutions
 Explain how to size an SC Series solution that includes Tiers 1-3, storage requirements, front-end and back-end connections, and common use cases
The percentages after each topic above reflects the approximate distribution of the total question set across the exam.

Recommended Training

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UK0-001 UKI Social Media Security Professional (SMSP) Certification exam Voucher Only

The SMSP course is definitely an eye opener. With how much social media has taken over, it is important to be fully aware of the capabilities along with all the risks it brings.
Wilder Guerra, information systems technician, U.S. Navy

The UKI Social Media Security Professional (SMSP) certification, powered by CompTIA, will be available on April 9.
The SMSP certification designates professionals with demonstrated technical knowledge of social networking platforms, as well as the skills to effectively mitigate risks in order to safeguard organizations' critical information from social media hackers. SMSPs have established competency to help guide organizations' social media personnel security policy. The unique aspect of the SMSP certification is its focus on technical granularity specific to social media platforms such as cross-site scripting, socware (social media malware), phishing, data profiling, geo-tagging, identity theft, and evil twin attacks.

The SMSP exam (UK0-001) will be available only through Pearson VUE testing centers. The certification exam features 65 multiple-choice questions, which must be completed within 90 minutes. Candidates can prepare for this exam by attending an official training course administered by Ultimate Knowledge Institute's (UKI) Authorized Training Partners (ATPs), or they can opt to challenge the exam without official training. SMSP exam vouchers are available through UKI's online store.

Ideal Candidates for SMSP Powered by CompTIA
The SMSP certification is designed for IT security professionals with a minimum of one year of cybersecurity work experience. This certification is ideal for individuals who either already work with social media solutions or who want to expand their skill set to ensure their readiness to tackle emerging cyber threats. Candidate job roles include information security technician, security administrator, security architect, security engineer or any other role that is responsible for information security.

The SMSP certification and training program is also designed for Information Assurance professionals in Chief Information Security Officer (CISO), Chief Information Officer (CIO) or other roles responsible for developing social media usage policies and education programs for end users.

The SMSP beta exam was attempted by IS professionals from Fortune 500 enterprises and government organizations covering various industries and sectors, and included organizations such as Booz Allen Hamilton, SAIC, SRA International, Wells Fargo, Wyndham International, Symantec, U.S. Department of Defense, FBI and many others.

"The SMSP course is definitely an eye opener," said Wilder Guerra, an information systems technician with the U.S. Navy. "With how much social media has taken over, it is important to be fully aware of the capabilities along with all the risks it brings. It is important to get this course because social media is the new norm."

Why is social media security important?
The sophisticated attacks that originate from social media platforms have been named one of the biggest challenges for the information assurance industry in 2013 by Sourcefire, McAfee, Forrester and Norton. With a network like Facebook, which boasts more than 1 billion users globally, those with criminal intentions are investing resources to access the wealth of data that users often voluntarily disclose about themselves and their organizations, be it private enterprises, government agencies or the military.

Since social networks rely on trust and sharing, hackers often choose social media as a platform for spreading malware and launching phishing and social engineering attacks to access sensitive information. In a recent study by McAfee, half of organizations surveyed admitted to a security scare resulting from social media. Also, a recent survey by Protiviti Inc. revealed that CIOs view improved competency in security for social media, which is now at the core of many enterprises, as one of their most pressing concerns.

While most IT professionals are aware of the dangers of social media usage, only about a third of corporations have a breach prevention and response strategy in place. Many organizations indicate the lack of skilled workforce to handle threats emerging from new media. This growing lack of experts in social media security and request for training development by the U.S. Department of Defense led Ultimate Knowledge Institute to design the SMSP training course and partner with Examplify, a wholly owned subsidiary of CompTIA, to develop the SMSP certification exam. UKI's strong training development background combined with CompTIA's experience in exam development offer a credible and reliable way to validate the skills of individuals taking the exams in the exploding IT arena of social media.

 

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C1000-003 IBM Mobile Foundation v8.0 Application Development

Number of questions: 59
Number of questions to pass: 43
Time allowed: 90 mins

This exam consists of 9 sections described below.

Section 1- Development Environment Set-up 7%
Download and install Dev Kit
Set up a platform specific IDE and tools
Install Eclipse plug-in
Install Mobile Foundation CLI

Section 2 - Development: Architecture 7%
Describe Mobile Foundation components and architecture
Integrate with data sources
Understand and be able to differentiate the different types of client-side development enabled by Mobile Foundation

Section 3 - Using the Command Line Interface (CLI) 12%
Configure and use the CLI
Manage the server profile
Create and manage apps
Create and manage adaptors

Section 4 - Development: Client Side 20%
Add the Mobile Foundation SDK to an application
Connect to the Mobile Foundation Server
Customize the startup process
Use WL resources requests to connect to server side resources
Debug an application
Add multilingual support for Mobile Foundation to the application
Use direct update to refresh web resources
Use live update to segment users and deliver customized content
Use JSONStore
Implement the Simple Data Sharing feature

Section 5 - Development: Server Side 14%
Create Mobile Foundation adapters
Test adapters using the OpenAPI Specification
Invoke Java code from adapters
Invoke adapters from other adapters
Use Mobile First server side APIs

Section 6 - Notifications 7%
Configure Push notifications
Implement and test Push and SMS Notification mechanisms

Section 7 - Authentication and Security 15%
Describe the OAuth 2.0 based Mobile Foundation security framework
Manage device enrollment
Create predefined security checks
Create custom security checks
Implement application authenticity
Implement device single sign-on (SSO)
Create and use Confidential Clients
Implement Certificate Pinning

Section 8 - Deployment 10%
Build and deploy applications and adapters to multiple environments
Configure Mobile Foundation Server settings
Configure and deploy adapters
Migrating from earlier realeases

Section 9 - Analytics and Reports 8%
Understand the capabilities provided by Mobile Foundation Operational Analytics
Enable access to raw and analytic reporting
Use the Analytics REST API
Access client side crash logs
Use MobileFirst Analytics to capture custom user analytics

PartnerWorld Code: C0000102
Replaces PW Code: Not Applicable

Status: Live
This intermediate level certification is intended for application developers who have hands-on experience using Mobile Foundation V8.0 to develop mobile applications.

A mobile application developer who achieves this certification can use Mobile Foundation V8.0 to develop client-side applications, develop server-side integration and security components, as well as test and deploy Mobile Foundation V8.0 projects. Overall, a mobile application developer can develop and implement mobile solutions.

The mobile application developer is generally self-sufficient and is able to perform most of the tasks involved in the role with limited assistance from peers and vendor support services. The mobile application developer efficiently uses product documentation.

To attain the IBM Certified Mobile Application Developer - Mobile Foundation V8.0 certification, candidates must pass 1 test. To prepare for the test, it is recommended to refer to the job role description and recommended prerequisite skills, and click the link to the test below to refer to the test objectives (skills measured on the test) and the Test preparation tab.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Knowledge and foundational skills one needs to possess before acquiring skills measured on the certification test. These foundational skills are NOT measured on the test. For skills measured on the test, see Test Objectives.)

Java programming
Web Services and REST
Database connectivity
Mobile Integrated Development Environments and tools
Command Line Interface (CLI)
JavaScript, HTML/CSS
Designing applications for mobile devices
Developing hybrid and native applications for both Android and iOS
Swift programming
Maven, Node, NPM and Git

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C5050-287 Foundations of IBM Cloud Reference Architecture V5

Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass:
Time allowed: 90 mins

Section 1 - Cloud Computing Concepts and Benefits
Define the cloud computing business advantages.
Define cloud architecture.
Describe considerations such as risk, cost and compliance around cloud computing.
Define automation as it pertains to cloud computing.
Define why standardization is important to cloud computing.
Define service catalog as it pertains to cloud computing.
Define a public cloud.
Define a private cloud.
Define a hybrid cloud.
Define the difference between a private cloud, a public cloud, and a hybrid cloud.
Define Software as a Service (SaaS).
Define Platform as a Service (PaaS).
Define Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS).
Define DevOps as it pertains to cloud computing.
Explain Maturity as it relates to SaaS, PaaS, and IaaS.
Explain the benefits of patterns as description of cloud services.
Define software defined environments as they relate to cloud computing.
Summarize how business processes can be automated in a cloud environment.

Section 2 - Cloud Computing Design Principles
Demonstrate base knowledge needed to advise on creating a cloud infrastructure.
Explain Cloud networking principles.
Explain Cloud storage principles such as block object file and storage area networks
Describe security strategies in a cloud computing environment.
Design principle for cloud ready applications including patterns, chef, puppet, and heat templates.
Design principles for cloud native applications such as open standards and 12-Factor app.
Design principles for DevOps.
Designing consumable applications for the cloud.
Define hybrid integration capabilities.
Define API Economy in Cloud Computing.
Define how solutions in the cloud can be more effective.
Explain to the customer how some popular billing models work and how they pertain to the software the customer has.
Describe principles for governance, compliance and service management.

Section 3 - IBM Cloud Reference Architecture
Explain the four defining principles of IBM Cloud.
Explain the benefits of using the IBM Cloud Reference Architecture (ICRA).
Explain the Cloud Platform Services for ICRA including containers, foundational services, etc.
Explain the Cloud Service Provider Adoption Pattern for ICRA.
Describe the ICRA Building SaaS cloud adoption pattern.
Explain the Hybrid patterns for ICRA
Describe the solution integration process detailed in the ICRA to take an existing environment to an IBM Cloud Computing environment.
Design a secure cloud service model using ICRA.
Describe high availability and disaster recovery as it pertains to cloud computing.
Describe actors and roles as defined in ICRA (Cloud Service Consumers, Cloud Service Creators, Cloud Service Provider, Cloud Services and the Common Cloud Management Platform).
Describe how IBM Service Management can effectively manage a customer's cloud environment.
Describe the IBM API management capabilities.
Describe the role of governance in the ICRA.
Describe non-functional requirements (NFRs) as described by ICRA.
Explain the role of mobile as part of the ICRA.
Explain the Cognitive pattern as part of the ICRA.
Explain the IOT pattern as part of the ICRA.
Explain the DevOps pattern as part of the ICRA.
Explain the Big Data and Analytics pattern as part of the ICRA.

Section 4 - IBM Cloud Solutions
Describe the IBM capabilities for Cloud Managed Services.
Describe the IBM capabilities for hybrid integration.
Describe the IBM capabilities for video services.
Describe the IBM capabilities for cloud brokerage.
Describe the IBM capabilities for DevOps.
Describe the IBM capabilities for cloud native applications.
Describe the IBM capabilities for service management.
Describe the IBM capabilities for storage.
Describe the IBM capabilities for business process management.
Describe the IBM capabilities for the IBM Marketplace.

Overview
PartnerWorld Code: 50001105
Replaces PW Code: 50001104

Status: Live
An IBM Certified Solution Advisor - Cloud Reference Architecture V5 is a person who can clearly explain the benefits and underlying concepts of cloud computing. They can also demonstrate how the IBM Cloud solution offerings can help customers realize these benefits.

Key areas of competency include:
Explain cloud computing concepts.
Describe how the customer can realize the benefits of cloud computing within their environment.
Identify IBM Cloud architecture and design principles.
Map customer's requirements to the IBM Cloud solution offerings.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

The following qualifications are requirements for success:
Working knowledge of cloud principles and architecture
Working knowledge of the various cloud deployment models
Working knowledge of the various types of "as a service" offerings
Working knowledge of various cloud business models
Working knowledge of key concerns and how they are addressed in cloud such as security, compliance, performance, storage, and data.
Working knowledge of emerging trends in cloud computing such as API economy, big data and analytics, internet of things, microservices, and mobile.
Working knowledge of the IBM Cloud Reference Architecture and associated adoption patterns.
Working knowledge of the IBM Cloud solution offerings.

Requirements
This certification requires 1 exam

Exam Required:
Click on the link below to see exam details, exam objectives, suggested training and sample tests.

C5050-287 - Foundations of IBM Cloud Reference Architecture V5
QUESTION: No: 1
Which technology best supports application portability?

A. docker containers
B. OpenFIow
C. docker stacks
D. OpenDayIight

Answer: A

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QUESTION: No: 2
What challenge of hybrid cloud environments is addressed by IBM solutions like IBM Cast Iron, IBM
MobiIeFirst platform integration and IBM API Management?

A. lack of workload portability
B. integration of systems of engagement and systems of record
C. service management of provisioned systems
D. mobile applications security in hybrid cloud environments

Answer: B

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QUESTION: No: 3
What is the principal reason that continuous testing is necessary in the agile world?

A. So that multiply teams can get better utilization out of testing environments
B. To bridge the gap between slow and fast speed IT development
C. For supports the large volume and high frequency of changes driven by cloud native development approaches
D. To ensure application interoperability across public cloud providers.

Answer: B

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QUESTION: No: 4
What are three essential cloud characteristics?

A. broad network access
B. on-demand self Service
C. economies of scale
D. measured service
E. vendor lock-in prevention
F. workload virtualization

Answer: A, B, D

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C2170-051 BM i2 Analyst's Notebook V8.9

Test information:
Number of questions: 53
Time allowed in minutes: 105
Required passing score: 62%
Languages: English

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Analyst - i2 Analyst's Notebook V8.9

This multiple-choice test contains questions requiring single and multiple answers. For multiple-answer questions, you need to choose all required options to get the answer correct. You will be advised how many options make up the correct answer.
This test is designed to provide diagnostic feedback on the Examination Score Report, correlating back to the test objectives, informing the test taker how he or she did on each section of the test. As a result, to maintain the integrity of each test, questions and answers are not distributed.

The test contains five sections totalling 53 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.

Section 1 - General IBM i2 Analyst's Notebook Application Knowledge (17%)
Understand the key elements of entities and connections
Understand and describe the purpose of an identity
Distinguish the differences between data locations such as date and time, and cards
Understand standard attributes

Section 2 - Manual Chart Creation (17%)
Implement methodologies on creating charts from unstructured data
Add and change entity representations and types
Add links and change link properties
Differentiate between the structure of association and timeline charts
Add standard attributes and create custom attributes

Section 3 - Import Data to Create a Chart (21%)
Analyze how to structure the source data for import
List some of the different file formats that may be imported into IBM i2 Analyst's Notebook
Demonstrate ability to standardize data using Column Actions
Select appropriate import designs
Use Assign Columns to specify how to create a chart
Format date and time within an Import Specification
Identify how to resolve warnings and errors when running an Import Specification

Section 4 - Basic Principles and Analysis Tools (34%)
Differentiate between analysis functions
Construct a question and select key data using Visual Search
Demonstrate comprehension of the features in List Items
Construct a search using wildcards and regular expressions
Identify potential duplicate entities and merge them
Identify trends in data by using Filters, Histograms and the HeatMatrix
Analyze the role of semantic types in IBM i2 Analyst's Notebook
Know the differences between the centrality measures in Social Network Analysis
Demonstrate how to run a Conditional Formatting Specification and create custom Conditional Formatting Specifications
Select an appropriate chart layout for a specific task

Section 5 - Analysis to Presentation Charts (11%)
Create a presentation chart from an analytical chart
Manipulate association and timeline charts for presentation
Create and implement the different functionalities of a Legend
Understand different dissemination tools in IBM i2 Analyst's Notebook

IBM Certified Analyst - i2 Analyst's Notebook V8.9

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This intermediate level certification is intended for professionals who are regular users of IBM i2 Analyst's Notebook V8.9. A minimum of six (6) months of experience in the product is recommended before attempting this certification.

This certification is relevant to national security law enforcement and commercial intelligence/fraud/information analysts, supervisors and managers who actively use the product, as well as researchers.

These professionals typically perform some or all of the following:
create intelligence analysis products
create associations and timeline charts; develop pattern of life
analyze financial and communication data
analyze networks and nodes
deconstruct organized crime groups
apply analytic trade craft
import structured data
assess and communicate analytical data through presentation charts

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Before preparing for this certification, basic understanding of the following is recommended and assumed:

knowledge of Windows and Microsoft Office Suite

In preparing for this certification, the following IBM courses are recommended to further improve your skills:
9I02G: IBM i2 Analyst's Notebook Essentials
QUESTION 1
The investigator wants to perform a search for "FARADAY" in Analyst's Notebook. Which wildcard
search will return the desired results?

A. F?Y
B. F*AY
C. F*day
D. FA???

Answer: B

Explanation:

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QUESTION 2
Which of the following will find all entities within two links of separation in a specific direction, and
in chronological order of a targeted entity?

A. Find Path
B. Find Linked
C. Visual Search
D. Find Matching Entities

Answer: B

Explanation:

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QUESTION 3
Which of the following is a semantic type that can be assigned to the chart items from the
Semantic Type Library?

A. Chart semantic types
B. Entity semantic types
C. Palette semantic types
D. Identity semantic types

Answer: B

Explanation:
QUESTION 4
An analyst is creating an Import Specification. During the Assign Columns step, which task MUST
be performed?

A. Assign all the identities.
B. Create more than one entity.
C. Add additional entities and links.
D. Assign all of the columns in the spreadsheet.

Answer: A

Explanation:

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QUESTION 5
The Filters and Histograms feature in Analyst's Notebook allows the user to do all of the following
EXCEPT for the ability to:

A. use analysis attributes for analyzing data.
B. isolate data based on filters or histograms selected.
C. drill-down into the data to do more in depth analysis.
D. view the data in different ways while at the same time changing the underlying data.

Answer: D

Explanation:

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C2150-613 IBM Security AppScan Enterprise Edition V9.0.3 Deployment

Test information:
Number of questions: 60
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 66%
Languages: English

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Deployment Professional - Security AppScan Enterprise Edition V9.0.3


The test consists of 4 sections containing a total of approximately 60 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.

Section 1 - Planning (22%)
Determine the supported hardware or software requirement based on projected usage.
Understand the customer environment to utilize the planning checklist.
Plan for license requirements.

Section 2 - Installation and Configuration (30%)
Determine pre-configuration requirements prior to installation.
Determine the requirements for downloading and installing software.
Configure the license key server and license key administrator.
Use the configuration wizard to configure the product.

Section 3 - Administration (27%)
Determine applicable post installation setup.
Set up user and security permissions.

Section 4 - Verification and Troubleshooting (22%)
Configure a verification scan.
Determine an appropriate solution for common troubleshooting issues.

IBM Certified Deployment Professional - Security AppScan Enterprise Edition V9.0.3

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This intermediate level certification is for deployment professional who work with IBM Security AppScan Enterprise Edition, V9.0.3. They plan, install, configure, verify, administer, maintain and troubleshoot.

These deployment professionals are generally self-sufficient and able to perform most of the tasks involved in the job role with limited assistance.

To attain the IBM Certified Deployment Professional - IBM Security AppScan Enterprise Edition V9.0.3 certification, candidates must pass 1 test. To prepare for the test, it is recommended to refer to the job role description and recommended prerequisite skills, and click the link to the test below to refer to the test objectives and the Test preparation tab.

Basic knowledge of:
Application security
Operating systems
Administering applications for servers (Windows and Linux)
Administering SQL servers
User authentication

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70-773 Analyzing Big Data with Microsoft R

Exam 70-773
Analyzing Big Data with Microsoft R

Published: January 3, 2017
Languages: English
Audiences: Data scientists
Technology Microsoft R Server, SQL R Services
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSE

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.

If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft Certification exams or about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact your Regional Service Center.

Read and explore big data
Read data with R Server
Read supported data file formats, such as text files, SAS, and SPSS; convert data to XDF format; identify trade-offs between XDF and flat text files; read data through Open Database Connectivity (ODBC) data sources; read in files from other file systems; use an internal data frame as a data source; process data from sources that cannot be read natively by R Server
Summarize data
Compute crosstabs and univariate statistics, choose when to use rxCrossTabs versus rxCube, integrate with open source technologies by using packages such as dplyrXdf, use group by functionality, create complex formulas to perform multiple tasks in one pass through the data, extract quantiles by using rxQuantile
Visualize data
Visualize in-memory data with base plotting functions and ggplot2; create custom visualizations with rxSummary and rxCube; visualize data with rxHistogram and rxLinePlot, including faceted plots

Process big data
Process data with rxDataStep
Subset rows of data, modify and create columns by using the Transforms argument, choose when to use on-the-fly transformations versus in-data transform trade-offs, handle missing values through filtering or replacement, generate a data frame or an XDF file, process dates (POSIXct, POSIXlt)
Perform complex transforms that use transform functions
Define a transform function; reshape data by using a transform function; use open source packages, such as lubridate; pass in values by using transformVars and transformEnvir; use internal .rx variables and functions for tasks, including cross-chunk communication
Manage data sets
Sort data in various orders, such as ascending and descending; use rxSort deduplication to remove duplicate values; merge data sources using rxMerge(); merge options and types; identify when alternatives to rxSort and rxMerge should be used
Process text using RML packages
Create features using RML functions, such as featurizeText(); create indicator variables and arrays using RML functions, such as categorical() and categoricalHash(); perform feature selection using RML functions

Build predictive models with ScaleR
Estimate linear models
Use rxLinMod, rxGlm, and rxLogit to estimate linear models; set the family for a generalized linear model by using functions such as rxTweedie; process data on the fly by using the appropriate arguments and functions, such as the F function and Transforms argument; weight observations through frequency or probability weights; choose between different types of automatic variable selections, such as greedy searches, repeated scoring, and byproduct of training; identify the impact of missing values during automatic variable selection
Build and use partitioning models
Use rxDTree, rxDForest, and rxBTrees to build partitioning models; adjust the weighting of false positives and misses by using loss; select parameters that affect bias and variance, such as pruning, learning rate, and tree depth; use as.rpart to interact with open source ecosystems
Generate predictions and residuals
Use rxPredict to generate predictions; perform parallel scoring using rxExec; generate different types of predictions, such as link and response scores for GLM, response, prob, and vote for rxDForest; generate different types of residuals, such as Usual, Pearson, and DBM
Evaluate models and tuning parameters
Summarize estimated models; run arbitrary code out of process, such as parallel parameter tuning by using rxExec; evaluate tree models by using RevoTreeView and rxVarImpPlot; calculate model evaluation metrics by using built-in functions; calculate model evaluation metrics and visualizations by using custom code, such as mean absolute percentage error and precision recall curves
Create additional models using RML packages
Build and use a One-Class Support Vector Machine, build and use linear and logistic regressions that use L1 and L2 regularization, build and use a decision tree by using FastTree, use FastTree as a recommender with ranking loss (NDCG), build and use a simple three-layer feed-forward neural network

Use R Server in different environments
Use different compute contexts to run R Server effectively
Change the compute context (rxHadoopMR, rxSpark, rxLocalseq, and rxLocalParallel); identify which compute context to use for different tasks; use different data source objects, depending on the context (RxOdbcData and RxTextData); identify and use appropriate data sources for different data sources and compute contexts (HDFS and SQL Server); debug processes across different compute contexts; identify use cases for RevoPemaR
Optimize tasks by using local compute contexts
Identify and execute tasks that can be run only in the local compute context, identify tasks that are more efficient to run in the local compute context, choose between rxLocalseq and rxLocalParallel, profile across different compute contexts
Perform in-database analytics by using SQL Server
Choose when to perform in-database versus out-of-database computations, identify limitations of in-database computations, use in-database versus out-of-database compute contexts appropriately, use stored procedures for data processing steps, serialize objects and write back to binary fields in a table, write tables, configure R to optimize SQL Server ( chunksize, numtasks, and computecontext), effectively communicate performance properties to SQL administrators and architects (SQL Server Profiler)
Implement analysis workflows in the Hadoop ecosystem and Spark
Use appropriate R Server functions in Spark; integrate with Hive, Pig, and Hadoop MapReduce; integrate with the Spark ecosystem of tools, such as SparklyR and SparkR; profile and tune across different compute contexts; use doRSR for parallelizing code that was written using open source foreach
Deploy predictive models to SQL Server and Azure Machine Learning
Deploy predictive models to SQL Server as a stored procedure, deploy an arbitrary function to Azure Machine Learning by using the AzureML R package, identify when to use DeployR

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Question No : 1

Note: This question Is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choice. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided In a question apply only to that question. You need to evaluate the significance of coefficient that are produced by using a model that
was estimated already.

Which function should you use?

A. rxPredict
B. rxLogit
C. Summary
D. rxLinMod
E. rxTweedie
F. stepAic
G. rxTransform
H. rxDataStep

Answer: D

Explanation: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/r-server/r/how-to-revoscaler-linear-model

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Question No : 2
You need to build a model that looks at the probability of an outcome. You must regulate between L1 and L2. Which classification method should you use?

A. Two-Class Neural Network
B. Two-Class Support Vector Machine
C. Two-Class Decision Forest
D. Two-Class Logistic Regression

Answer: A

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C2090-730 DB2 9 Family Fundamentals

Test information:
Number of questions: 64
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 59%
Languages: English, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Application Developer - DB2 9.7 for Linux, Unix and Windows
IBM Certified Database Administrator - DB2 9.7 for Linux, Unix and Windows
IBM Certified Advanced Deployment Professional - Tivoli Service Management Solutions 2008
IBM Certified Advanced Database Administrator - DB2 9.7 for Linux, UNIX and Windows
IBM Certified Database Associate -- DB2 9 Fundamentals
IBM Certified Database Administrator - DB2 9 DBA for z/OS
IBM Certified Database Administrator - DB2 10.1 for Linux, UNIX, and Windows
IBM Certified Solution Designer -- DB2 Business Intelligence V8
IBM Certified Database Administrator - DB2 10 for z/OS
IBM Certified Solution Developer - DB2 9.5 SQL Procedure Developer
IBM Certified Solution Developer - DB2 9.7 SQL Procedure
IBM Certified Application Developer - DB2 9
IBM Certified Advanced Database Administrator - DB2 10.1 for Linux UNIX and Windows
IBM Certified Database Administrator - DB2 10.5 DBA for LUW Upgrade from DB2 10.1
IBM Certified System Administrator - DB2 9 for z/OS
IBM Certified System Administrator - DB2 10 for z/OS

This Database Associate is an entry level DBA or a user of any of the DB2 family of products. This individual is knowledgeable about the fundamental concepts of DB2 9 through either hands on experience or formal and informal education. The database associate should have an in-depth knowledge of the basic to intermediate tasks required in day-to-day administration, basic SQL (Structured Query Language), understand how DB2 9 is packaged and installed, understand how to create databases and database objects, and have a basic knowledge of database security and transaction isolation.

Section 1 - Planning (14%)
Knowledge of restricting data access
Knowledge of the features or functions available in DB2 tools (just tools that come with product - distributed +space - i.e., control center, configuration advisor, configuration assistant, command line processor)
Knowledge database workloads (OLTP vs warehousing)
Knowledge of non-relational data concepts (extenders)
Knowledge of XML data implications (non-shreading)

Section 2 - Security (11%)
Knowledge of DB2 products (client, server, etc.)
Knowledge of different privileges and authorities
Knowledge of encryption options (data and network)
Given a DDL SQL statement, knowledge to identify results (grant/revoke/connect statements)

Section 3 - Working with Databases and Database Objects (17%)
Ability to identify and connect to DB2 servers and databases
Ability to identify DB2 objects
Knowledge of basic characteristics and properties of DB2 objects
Given a DDL SQL statement, knowledge to identify results (ability to create objects)

Section 4 - Working with DB2 Data using SQL (23.5%)
Given a DML SQL statement, knowledge to identify results
Ability to use SQL to SELECT data from tables
Ability to use SQL to SORT or GROUP data
Ability to use SQL to UPDATE, DELETE, or INSERT data
Knowledge of transactions (i.e., commit/rollback and transaction boundaries)
Ability to call a procedure or invoke a user defined function
Given an XQuery statement, knowledge to identify results

Section 5 - Working with DB2 Tables, Views and Indexes (23.5%)
Ability to demonstrate usage of DB2 data types
Given a situation, ability to create table
Knowledge to identify when referential integrity should be used
Knowledge to identify methods of data constraint
Knowledge to identify characteristics of a table, view or index
Knowledge to identify when triggers should be used
Knowledge of schemas
Knowledge of data type options for storing XML data

Section 6 - Data Concurrency (11%)
Knowledge to identify factors that influence locking
Ability to list objects on which locks can be obtained
Knowledge to identify characteristics of DB2 locks
Given a situation, knowledge to identify the isolation levels that should be used

---

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on a Windows server that has 2CPUs?

A. DB2 Everyplace
B. DB2 Express Edition
C. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
D. DB2 Enterprise Server Edition

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 2
Which of the following products is allowed to access other DB2 servers, but cannot accept requests from otherremote clients?

A. DB2 Personal Edition
B. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
C. DB2 Enterprise Server Edition
D. DB2 Data Warehouse Edition

Answer: A

---

QUESTION 3
A client application on z/OS must access a DB2 database on a Solaris Server. At a minimum, which of the following products must be installed on the Solaris workstation?

A. DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition
B. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
C. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition and DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition
D. DB2 Enterprise Server Edition and DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition

Answer: D

---

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on an HP-UX server?

A. DB2 Express-C
B. DB2 Express
C. DB2 Personal Edition
D. DB2 Enterprise Server Edition

Answer: D

---

QUESTION 5
Which of the following products must be installed on an AIX server in order to build an application for AIX that will access a DB2 for z/OS database?

A. DB2 Enterprise Server Edition
B. DB2 Personal Developer's Edition
C. DB2 UniversalDeveloper's Edition
D. DB2 Universal Database Enterprise Edition and DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition

Answer: C

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C2090-635 IBM Cognos 10 BI OLAP Developer

Test information:
Number of questions: 65
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 76%
Languages: English, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Advanced Developer - Risk Information Governance for BI
IBM Certified Solution Expert - Cognos BI
IBM Certified Developer - Cognos 10 BI OLAP Models

The Cognos 10 BI OLAP Developer exam covers key concepts, technologies, and functionality of the Cognos products. In preparation for an exam, we recommend a combination of training and hands-on experience, and a detailed review of product documentation.

Transformer Basics (5%)
Describe the Transformer development process

Data Sources (12%)
Identify data sources for use in Transformer
Describe the use of multiple data sources
Describe uniqueness

Model Creation (17%)
Describe the process to build a basic Transformer model
Describe the implementation of a time dimension
Describe how to make data available in the Cognos 10 studios

Model Key Performance Measures (12%)
Differentiate between measures
Describe the use of measures

Security (12%)
Describe the IBM Cognos 10 security environment
Describe how to secure a PowerCube

PowerCube Content Customization (20%)
Define techniques to customize dimensions
Describe the process to customize PowerCube content

Maintenance and Advanced Techniques (22%)
Describe techniques for model maintenance
Describe how to update published PowerCubes and PowerCube connections
Identify ways to trouble shoot issues
Identify considerations for optimization
Describe changes that impact MUNs

---

QUESTION 1
What should a developer do if some levels appear red after validating the model using Show Scope?

A. Ensure the level exists in the data source.
B. Specify a valid relationship between the level and the data source.
C. Re-attach the categories in the Dimension Diagram.
D. Apply unique move to the level and regenerate the categories.

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 2
When measures are calculated after rollup, when are the calculations performed?

A. Before time state rollup takes place.
B. After allocated measures are calculated.
C. Before regular rollup takes place on all measures.
D. After relative time calculations.

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 3
What objects can be created within the Cognos Namespace?

A. Roles and users
B. Groups and roles
C. Groups and users
D. Members

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 4
Transformer is unable to locate one of the source files for a data source in the model, and
the model update fails. Which type of files can be used to restart the processing at the point of failure?

A. .py?
B. .qy?
C. .mdl
D. .mdx

Answer: B

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Exam 70-696 Administering System Center Configuration Manager and Intune

Published: January 23, 2015
Languages: English, Spanish, Chinese (Simplified), Chinese (Traditional), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil)
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Windows 8.1, Windows Server 2012 R2, Microsoft Intune
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSE

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.

If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft Certification exams or about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact your Regional Service Center.

As of February 2016, this exam was updated to reflect Windows 10 scenarios, requirements, and any related service pack updates. To learn more about these changes and how they affect the skills measured, please download and review the Exam 70-696 change document.

Deploy and manage virtual applications (10–15%)
Prepare virtual applications
Sequence applications, install and configure the sequencer environment, prepare applications for deployment in different environments, configure virtual application interaction and sharing
Manage application virtualization environments
Configure App-V, manage application cache, configure System Tray/SFTTray.exe switches, configure application extensions with virtualized applications, configure application settings using group policies
Deploy and manage RemoteApp
Configure RemoteApp and Desktop Connections settings, configure Group Policy Objects (GPOs) for signed packages, subscribe to the RemoteApp and Desktop Connections feeds, support iOS and Android, configure Remote Desktop web access for RemoteApp distribution, configure and deploy Azure RemoteApp

Deploy and manage desktop and mobile applications (15–20%)
Plan an application distribution strategy
Considerations, including impact on clients due to offline access, deployment infrastructure, and remote locations; choose the appropriate application distribution method; plan to distribute applications to mobile devices, including Windows Phone, iOS, and Android, by using Microsoft Intune; plan to distribute applications to devices including Windows Store Apps
Deploy applications using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager
Choose and configure deployment types, configure user device affinity, configure requirements, manage the software library and application catalog
Deploy applications using Microsoft Intune
Choose between automatic and manual deployment, configure application deployment policies, add software packages, configure the company portal
Plan for application upgrades
Considerations, including application version co-existence, compatibility issues, and migrating application settings and configurations; re-sequence/redeploy applications
Monitor applications
Monitor offline application usage; monitor real-time sessions; monitor application licensing usage; configure Asset Intelligence in Configuration Manager; monitor applications, using Software Center
Manage content distribution
Manage distribution points, distribution point groups, and Content Library; monitor log files

Plan and implement software updates (15–20%)
Plan and deploy third-party updates
Plan for third-party support, integrate System Center Updates Publisher with Configuration Manager
Deploy software updates by using Configuration Manager and Windows Server Update Services (WSUS)
Configure software update point synchronization to Windows Update, use reports and In Console Monitoring to identify required updates, create update groups, create and monitor deployments, analyze log files, configure Automatic Deployment Rules (ADR), provide secondary access to Windows Update, configure GPO settings
Servicing Windows using Microsoft Intune and the Windows as a Service Model
Use reports and In Console Monitoring to identify required updates, approve or decline updates, configure automatic approval settings, configure deadlines for update installations, deploy Microsoft and non-Microsoft updates, plan for a service branch

Manage compliance and Endpoint Protection settings (15–20%)
Build a Configuration Item (CI)
Create a CI, import a CI, set CI versioning, remediate rules
Create and monitor a baseline
Deploy a baseline, import a configuration pack, build a custom baseline
Configure Endpoint Protection
Create and manage the Endpoint Protection policy; configure definitions within the client policy; export policies; choose which template to use; select exclusions; configure Endpoint Protection, using Microsoft Intune; use In Console Monitoring to monitor client compliance

Manage Configuration Manager clients (15–20%)
Deploy and manage the client agent
Identify deployment methods, manage client agent settings
Manage collections
Plan the collection structure; define rules for collections; customize collection-specific settings, including maintenance windows and power management
Configure and monitor client status
Configure client status settings, use In Console Monitoring to determine client health, configure alert thresholds, configure client health auto-remediation

Manage inventory using Configuration Manager (10–15%)
Manage hardware and software inventory
Extend hardware inventory WMI classes, export and import WMI class settings, configure standardized vendor names, analyze the identified inventory and generate reports
Manage software metering
Create software metering rules, enable or disable auto-generated rules, report software metering results
Create reports
Clone and modify reports, create custom reports, import and export reports, manage asset intelligence, install the asset intelligence sync point, enable the WMI classes, modify categories and labels, analyze reports

Provision and manage mobile devices (10–15%)
Integrate Configuration Manager with the Exchange ActiveSync Connector
Configure and apply ActiveSync policies, view inventory on mobile devices, configure connection to an on-premises or Hosted Exchange server environment, monitor the Exchange connector log file
Manage devices with Microsoft Intune
Provision user accounts, enroll devices, integrate Microsoft Intune with Configuration Manager, view and manage all managed devices, configure the Microsoft Intune subscriptions, configure the Microsoft Intune connector site system role, manage profiles and conditional access by using Microsoft Intune
Manage connection profiles, by using Configuration Manager
Configure Remote Desktop profiles, certificate profiles, email profiles, and Wi-Fi profiles

---

Question 1
You need to recommend a deployment solution for App6.
What is the best recommendation? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
Select the BEST answer.

B. a local installation
C. a RemoteApp program
D. a Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) package

Answer: D

---

Question 2
You need to resolve the Windows update issue.
What should you do?

A. Modify the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in Active Directory.
B. Synchronize software updates from Configuration Manager.
C. Create an automatic deployment rule.
D. Add distribution points to each branch office.

Answer: D

---

Question 3
You need to ensure that the personal devices that run Windows 8.1 meet the corporate
security policy requirements.
What should you do first?

A. Create a federated trust with Windows Azure Active Directory.
B. Create a federated identity relationship with the Microsoft Federation Gateway.
C. Enroll the device in Windows Intune.
D. Join the devices to the domain by using an offline domain join.

Answer: C

---

Question 4
You need to make App4 available to all of the users.
What should you do?

A. Package App4 as an MSI package and upload the installer to Windows Intune.
B. Sequence App4 and use streaming delivery.
C. Deploy App4 as a Configuration Manager package.
D. Deploy App4 to a Remote Desktop Session Host (RD Session Host) server.

Answer: D

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RC0-903 CompTIA A+ Recertification Exam

Exam Codes RC0-903
Launch Date July 7, 2016
Eligibility Candidates MUST have:

An active A+ CE certification earned by passing exams from the 800-series or earlier.

Received an email from CompTIA containing a Private Access Code (PAC).

Exam Description The CompTIA A+ Recertification Exam covers these domains:
1.0 Mobile Devices (6% of total)
2.0 Windows Operating Systems (20% of total)
3.0 Other Operating Systems and Technologies (11% of total)
4.0 Troubleshooting (Hardware/Software) (59% of total)
5.0 Operational Procedures (4% of total)

Recertification Exam Objectives Download
Number of Questions 50
Type of Questions Multiple choice questions (single and multiple response)
Length of Test 75 Minutes
Passing Score 700 (on a scale of 900)
Delivery Non-proctored Pearson IBT
CEU Impact

Only candidates with an active A+ CE certification will receive CEU credit.
Passing the exam will automatically renew your existing A+ CE. Please allow 1-3 days for your record to be updated.

Introduction The CompTIA A+ Recertification Exam is one way for CompTIA A+ certified professionals to keep their A+ certification active. A CompTIA A+ certification earned on or after January 1, 2011 is valid for three years from the date the certification was earned. The certification must be renewed within three years in order for the individual to remain certified. To remain certified, individuals may:
 Re-take (and pass) both of the current certification exams (220-901 and 220-902)
 Participate in continuing education activities
 Take (and pass) the A+ re-certification exam (RC0-903) The CompTIA A+ Recertification Exam RC0-903 bridges the competencies measured by the A+ 800 series (220-801 and 220-802) and the 900 series (220-901 and 220-902). The exam (RC0-903) blueprint includes the objectives new to the 900 series and also assesses the highest weighted competencies that appear on both sets of exams
(i.e., the knowledge and skills rated by SMEs as most relevant for on - the - job performance). NOTE: Availability of RC0-903 is LIMITED TO THOSE who have kept their A+ certification active and have not taken and passed the current 900 series exams.

CompTIA A+ is accredited by ANSI to show compliance with the ISO 17024 Standard and, as such, undergoes regular reviews and updates to the exam objectives. The following CompTIA A+ Recertification RC0-903 exam objectives result from subject matter expert workshops and industry - wide survey results regarding the skills and knowledge required of an entry - level IT technical support
professional.

This examination blueprint includes domain weighting, test objectives, and example content. Example topics and concepts are included to clarify the test objectives and should not be construed as a comprehensive listing of all the content of this examination.
Candidates are encouraged to use this document to guide their studies. The table below lists the domains measured by this examination and the extent to which they are represented. The CompTIA A+
RC0-903 exam is based on these objectives.

QUESTION 1 – (Topic 1)
A user reports that the cursor jumps to random screen locations when typing on a laptop computer. Which of the following devices is MOST likely causing this?
A. The touchpad
B. The mouse wheel
C. The multimedia keys
D. The digitizer
Answer: A

---

QUESTION 2 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following would need to be enabled on a mobile phone to share its Internet connection with multiple devices simultaneously?
A. NFC
B. Bluetooth
C. Hotspot
D. Tethering
Answer: C

---

QUESTION 3 – (Topic 1)
A customer asks a technician for a device that has the capability to easily connect a laptop to an external monitor, keyboard, mouse, and charge the battery. Which of the following devices should the technician recommend to the customer?
A. Lightning
B. KVM switch
C. USB 3.0
D. Docking station
Answer: D

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C2090-552 IBM InfoSphere Optim for Distributed Systems Fundamentals

Test information:
Number of questions: 65
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 75%
Languages: English, Japanese

This certification exam certifies that the successful candidate has important knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to plan, install, configure, troubleshoot, administer and maintain an IBM InfoSphere Optim Data Growth, Optim Decommissioning, Test Data Management, or Test Data Management with Data Privacy option on a Distributed System.

Section 1 - Installation and Configuration (25%)
Optim Architecture
Operating Systems/Hardware support
Database Support
Establishing Environments
Optim Directories (location, numbers, owners)
Confirming installation pre-reqs
Physical installations
Security
Initializing
Enabling
Configuring
Archive / Extract Maintenance
File locations/sub-systems
File naming / sizing

Section 2 - Optim Core Functionality (35%)
Data Growth
Archive
Delete
Restore
Decommissioning
Test Data Management
Extract / Insert
Edit
Compare
Data Privacy Functions (when to use which ones)
Convert
Privacy Functions
Access Definitions
Relationships

Section 3 - Advanced Topics (34%)
Enterprise Integration
Security
Storage
Automation (i.e. Command Line)
Import/Export OPTIM DDL
Archive Files (i.e., location, collections, moving, registering, creating, managing index files)
Optim Connect
Archive Collections
Archive Indexes
Archive File Maintenance
Complex Data Model Traversals
Extended Data Sources
InfoSphere Federation Server
Optim Connect
Non-Enforced Referential Integrity
Column Maps and Exits

Section 4 - Performance and Troubleshooting (6%)
Log Files, Trace Files and Statistical Reports
Relationships (i.e., delete strategy, OPTIM relationships, Forced Key/Scan Lookups, Scans, Threads)

Relationship Index Analysis

IBM Certified Specialist - InfoSphere Optim for Distributed Systems v9.1

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This certification exam certifies that the successful candidate has important knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to plan, install, configure, troubleshoot, administer and maintain an IBM InfoSphere Optim Solutions v9.1.

This includes:
* product installation and configuration
* Optim Core Functionality
* LUA
* Optim Search
* Masking on Demand
* Service on Demand
* New Database features and functionality
* performance and tuning

The person performing these functions is generally self-sufficient and is able to perform most of the tasks involved in the role with limited assistance from peers, product documentation and vendor support services.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

Hands-on experience with installing, configuring and using InfoSphere Optim on Distributed Systems

IBM Certified Specialist - InfoSphere Optim for Distributed Systems Fundamentals

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This intermediate level certification is intended for application developers, database administrators, and technical personnel who perform the installation, configuration and day-to-day tasks associated with ensuring the smooth and efficient operation of InfoSphere Optim environment.

This includes:
* product installation and configuration
* configuration of security
* archive and extract maintenance
* archiving and Optim Connect
* decommissioning
* creation and maintenance of test data
* privatizing data
* accessing extended data sources using Optim Connect and InfoSphere Federation Server
* implementing a test data management environment
* performance and tuning

The person performing these functions is generally self-sufficient and is able to perform most of the tasks involved in the role with limited assistance from peers, product documentation and vendor support services.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Familiarity with Optim Manuals
Hands-on experience with installing, configuring, and using Optim on Distributed Systems

---

QUESTION 1
You can use the silent installer in a UNIX environment to install the Optim Server. The silent
installer is NOT available for which two of the following platforms? (Choose two.)

A. HP-UX 11i v2
B. Red Hat Linux 3
C. IBM AIX 5
D. Solaris 8
E. SUSE 10

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 2
When installing Optim, what is the minimum disk space needed for the database?

A. 50gb
B. 50mb
C. As required
D. 500mb

Answer: C

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 3
You are planning an installation of IBM Optim. Which two configurations are supported for the
Optim Server and Optim Directory? (Choose two.)

A. DB2 database running on Ubuntu Linux
B. DB2 or Oracle databases running on AIX
C. Oracle or Microsoft SQL Server databases running on AIX
D. DB2 or Informix databases running on Sun Solaris
E. DB2 or Microsoft Access databases running on Windows XP Professional

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about Optim security roles? (Choose two.)

A. Functional Privilege classes such as Create New Actions and Create New Definitions can be
controlled using Roles.
B. Privileges such as Archive Request and Compare Request can be controlled using Roles
C. By default, the Access Control Domain allows access to all Optim Actions and privileges. Only
denial of privileges can be assigned using roles.
D. Default Roles may not be modified to allow or deny Functional Privilege Classes and New
Action Privileges.
E. Edit the FAD (File Access Definition) to control which roles has access to all of the files.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

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C7020-230 IBM Watson V3 Application Development

Test information:
Number of questions: 63
Time allowed in minutes: 105
Required passing score: 71%
Languages: English, , Japanese

Section 1 - Fundamentals of Cognitive Computing
Define the main characteristics of a cognitive system
Explain neural nets
Explain machine learning technologies (supervised, unsupervised, reinforcement learning approaches)
Define a common set of use cases for cognitive systems
Define Precision, Recall, and Accuracy
Explain the importance of separating training, validation and test data
Measure accuracy of service
Define types of entities, relationships and co-references
Define Intents and Classes

Section 2 - Use cases of Cognitive Services
Select appropriate combination of cognitive technologies based on use-case and data format
Explain the uses of IBM Watson services available in the Application Starter Kits�
Describe the IBM Watson Conversation service
Explain use cases for integrating external systems such as Twitter, Weather API
Describe the IBM Watson Discovery service

Section 3 - Fundamentals of IBM Watson Developer Cloud
Distinguish cognitive services on IBM Watson Developer Cloud for which training is required or not
Provide examples of text classification using the IBM Watson Natural Language Classifier
Explain the IBM Watson SDKs available as part of the services on the IBM Watson Developer Cloud
Explain the IBM Watson REST APIs available as part of the services on the IBM Watson Developer Cloud
Explain and configure the IBM Watson Natural Language Classificer service
Explain and configure the IBM Watson Visual Recognition service
Explain and execute the IBM Watson Personality Insight service
Explain how the BM Watson Tone Analyzer service works
Explain, setup, configure and query the IBM Watson Discovery service
Explain and configure the IBM Watson Conversation service

Section 4 - Developing Cognitive applications using IBM Watson Developer Cloud
Call an IBM Watson service to analyze content
Describe the tasks required to implement the IBM Watson Conversational Agent / Digital Bot
Manipulate service outputs for consumption by other services
Define common design patterns for composing multiple IBM Watson services together
Explain the process to provision and use an instance of an IBM Watson Bluemix service instance
Explain the advantages of using IBM Bluemix as the cloud platform for Cognitive application development and deployment

Section 5 - Administration & DevOps for applications using IBM Watson services
Describe the process of obtaining credentials for IBM Watson services

Examine error logs provided by services

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This intermediate level technical professional is an individual who understands concepts essential to the development of applications using IBM Watson services. They have experience using the IBM Bluemix Platform-as-a-Service offering and are able to consume IBM Watson services in an application. This individual is able to perform these tasks with little to no assistance from product documentation, support or peers.

Key Areas of Competency:
Fundamentals of IBM Watson services
Use cases of Cognitive Services
Developing cognitive applications using IBM Watson services
Administering applications using IBM Watson services

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Working knowledge of developing an application using IBM Watson services
Working knowledge of core Cloud services (monitoring, logging, scaling), and security
Working knowledge with designing, developing and deploying RESTful APIs
Working knowledge of use cases using IBM Watson services
Working knowledge of cognitive concepts such as intent, relationships, entities, and ground truth
Working knowledge of the application starter kits and demos available on the IBM Watson Developer Cloud
Working knowledge of open technologies like CloudFoundry and Git like repositories
Basic knowledge of application development using common web technologies such as Node.js, Javascript, HTML, and css
Basic knowledge of machine learning methods and technologies

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).

Test(s) required:

Click on the link(s) below to see test details, test objectives, suggested training and sample tests.

Test C7020-230 - IBM Watson V3 Application Development

Open Badge Program
Earn an IBM Open Badge and Share it in Social Media!
By completing this certification, you will earn an IBM Open Badge! IBM's open badges provide an online representation of skills and achievements, allowing you to share your credential to LinkedIn, Facebook and Twitter. You can also download and add your badge to your e-mails and websites. When someone clicks on your badge, the badge is validated and they will be linked to metadata describing your qualifications along with the process required to earn it. This additional level of information helps you tell a more complete and compelling story of your achievements: More than 70% of badge earners say an IBM Open Badge improves their career opportunities. For more information, visit http://ibm.co/2iJiCpL

QUESTION 1
Which type of learning do regression, support vector machines, and Bayesian classifiers typically fall under?

A. cognitive learning
B. supervised learning
C. unsupervised learning
D. reinforcement learning

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 2
What information does the IBM Watson Natural Language Understanding service extract from html, text, or web-based content when it analyzes entities?

A. text and title information
B. people, companies, organizations
C. topic keywords
D. subject-action-object relations

Answer: D

---

QUESTION 3
Why would the data crawler be used with the IBM Watson Discovery service?

A. The data crawler automates the upload of content to the Discovery service.
B. Use the data crawler when structured data must be mined from other services.
C. When working with the tooling, the data crawler can be used to upload sample documents.
D. When there is a business need to dynamically crawl websites, Twitter and constantly changing content.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Reference https://www.ibm.com/watson/developercloud/doc/discovery/data-crawler.html

---

QUESTION 4
In a neural network, what is the name of the region marked with a question mark?


A. Hidden Layer
B. Computational Layer
C. Cognitive Layer
D. Intelligence Layer

Answer: A

---

QUESTION 5
What is the formula for recall in a classification system?

A. True Positives/ (True Positives+False Negatives)
B. True Positives/ (True Positives+False Positives)
C. False Positives/ (True Negatives+False Negatives)
D. True Positives/ (True Positives+True Negatives)

Answer: A

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C2070-983 IBM Content Navigator V2.0.2, Solution Designer

Test information:
Number of questions: 57
Time allowed in minutes: 120
Required passing score: 66%
Languages: English

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Solution Designer - Content Navigator V2.0.2

The test contains seven sections, totaling 66 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.

Section 1 - Architecture, Concepts and Functionalities (30%)
Demonstrate knowledge of ICN architecture
Demonstrate understanding of ICN key functionalities
Demonstrate understanding of Search
Demonstrate understanding of Browse
Demonstrate understanding of Teamspaces
Demonstrate understanding of Workflows
Demonstrate understanding of Viewers
Demonstrate understanding of ICN mobile functionality
Demonstrate an understanding of ICN prerequisites

Section 2 - Requirements Analysis and Solution Design (16%)
Demonstrate the ability to identify applicable ICN features and extention points
Demonstrate understanding of provisioning Desktops to support business goals
Show knowledge in determining security requirements
Show knowledge in determing overall system component architecture

Section 3 - Configuring and Customizing ICN (26%)
Demonstrate knowledge of ICN repository configuration
Show knowledge of Desktop customization
Demonstrate a knowledge of Appearance customization
Demonstrate a knowledge of Menu customization
Demonstrate knowledge of mobile features configuration
Demonstrate an understanding of Teamspace self-provisioning

Section 4 - Extending ICN (23%)
Demonstrate knowledge of technologies used for plugin development
Demonstrate a knowledge of plug-in architecture and functionalities
Demonstrate knowledge of External Data Services (EDS)
Demonstrate knowledge of distinguishing EDS from a Filter Plug-in
Demonstrate an understanding of technologies used for mobile development
Demonstrate an understanding of workflow extention points

Section 5 - Solution Testing and Deployment (5%)
Explain the steps required to move a solution between dev, test and production environments

Show knowledge of ICN logging and basic troubleshooting

IBM Certified Solution Designer - Content Navigator V2.0.2

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This intermediate level certification test certifies that the successful candidate has the knowledge to create the theoretical and/or detailed technical design of an application, solution, infrastructure using IBM Content Navigator V2.0.2. Provide expertise to evaluate and choose between alternatives; assist with balancing costs with capabilities and priorities. Identify products / technologies / processes to be included, and determine points of required integration and customization. Identify sizing and capacity issues, as well as conflicts with existing processes or environments.

The person performing these functions is generally self-sufficient and is able to perform most of the tasks involved in the role with limited assistance from peers or support services.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Before preparing for this certification, basic understanding of the following is recommended and assumed for your environment:

Knowledge of Content Navigator components: Browsing, Search, and Workflow, Administration, Teamspaces
Knowledge of IBM Enterprise Content Management base platforms
Knowledge of databases
Knowledge of Content Management Interoperability Services (CMIS)
Knowledge of application servers
Knowledge of developing Web 2.0/Ajax applications
Knowledge of iOS mobile platform
Knowledge of mobile application development
Knowledge of High-Level Architecture of ICN (Different Layers)
Knowledge of plug-ins and Extension Points

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C2070-588 IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture V8.1 Solution Design

Test information:
Number of questions: 62
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 63%
Languages: English

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Solution Designer - Datacap Taskmaster Capture V8.1

The test contains five sections, totaling 62 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.

Section 1 - Datacap Taskmaster Architecture (14%)
Demonstrate understanding of Datacap Taskmaster architecture
Explain general architecture
Explain capacity planning and load balancing configuration
Demonstrate an understanding of distributed environments
Demonstrate knowledge of Datacap Taskmaster Components
Identify minimum installation requirements
Demonstrate knowledge of Datacap Taskmaster databases
Demonstrate knowledge of Datacap Taskmaster application offerings

Section 2 - Analyze Business Requirements (16%)
Determine what information to gather from images
Identify ingestion sources
Determine business validation rules
Demonstrate understanding of export requirements
Determine security requirements
Determine reporting requirements

Section 3 - Design a Datacap Taskmaster Solution (27%)
Demonstrate knowledge of creating Datacap document hierarchy
Analyze job and task design
Demonstrate knowledge of ingestion
Demonstrate knowledge of document conversions
Demonstrate knowledge of page identification
Demonstrate knowledge of recognition methodology
Demonstrate knowledge of validation techniques
Demonstrate knowledge of user interfaces
Demonstrate knowledge of export approaches
Demonstrate knowledge of FastDoc
Demonstrate knowledge of RuleRunner
Demonstrate knowledge of Datacap Taskmaster component distribution/location

Section 4 - Develop Application and Solution Components (33%)
Identify uses of NENU
Demonstrate understanding of RV2
Demonstrate understanding of RuleRunner
Demonstrate knowledge of using FastDoc admin
Demonstrate understanding of Datacap Studio
Demonstrate knowledge of Studio AppWizard
Demonstrate knowledge of how to develop Task Profiles
Demonstrate knowledge of how to develop rulesets
Demonstrate knowledge of applying rules to Datacap Document Hierarchy (DCO)
Demonstrate understanding of web administration
Demonstrate knowledge of custom components
Demonstrate knowledge of User interfaces
Demonstrate knowledge of Actions
Demonstrate knowledge of Reports
Demonstrate knowledge of using SmartParameters
Demonstrate knowledge of upgrading Datacap solutions

Section 5 - Solution Testing and Deployment (10%)
Demonstrate knowledge of performing solution testing
Demonstrate knowledge on how to use the test module in Datacap Studio
Explain steps required to move solution between deployment targets
Demonstrate ability to enable logging for all the components

IBM Certified Solution Designer - Datacap Taskmaster Capture V8.1

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This intermediate level certification test certifies that the successful candidate has the knowledge to create the theoretical and/or detailed technical design of an application, solution, and infrastructure using IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture V8.1. Provide expertise to evaluate and choose between alternatives; assist with balancing costs with capabilities and priorities. Identify products / technologies / processes to be included, and determine points of required integration and customization. Identify sizing and capacity issues, as well as conflicts with existing processes or environments.

To attain the IBM Certified Solution Designer - Datacap Taskmaster Capture V8.1 certification, candidates must pass 1 test. To gain additional knowledge and skills, and prepare for the tests based on the job roles and test objectives, click on the link for Test 000-588 below.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

Before preparing for this certification, basic understanding of the following is recommended and assumed:

Knowledge of IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture components: FastDoc, Taskmaster Web and Task Master Web Administrator, RV2, DotEdit, DotScan, Dstudio, RuleRunner, NENU
Ability to write actions for IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture: VBScript, C#
Knowledge of Microsoft IIS
Knowledge of Out-of-the-Box component interfaces.
Knowledge of content acquisition: import, fax, email and scan
Knowledge of document and image conversion
Knowledge of document hierarchy
Knowledge of document and page identification
Knowledge of recognition
Knowledge of routing: branching, jumping and splitting
Knowledge of verification and validation
Knowledge of export and repositories
Knowledge of databases
QUESTION 2
A customer has images that have machine print as well as handwritten data on the image. Is it
necessary to have an OCR_s or OCR_a engine as well as an ICR engine to extract/read data
from the image, and why?

A. Yes, both OCR_s and ICR_c engines will have to be used.
B. No, ICR_c engine works well with hand-printed and machine-printed text.
C. No, OCR_s engine works well with hand-printed and machine-printed text.
D. No, OCR_a is the only engine that can read hand-printed and machine-printed text.

Answer: B

Explanation:

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QUESTION 3
A customer has remote users that will be scanning in paper documents for their IBM Datacap
Taskmaster applications outside of their office network. What is the BEST method of ingestion for
the customer's application?

A. Use the Taskmaster Web client to scan and then upload the documents, using a TWAIN driver .
B. Use Taskmaster DotScan using ISIS or TWAIN scanner for the remote user to scan in new
batches.
C. Use a fax machine where remote user fax images to a Rightfax server which is ingested by a
RuleRunner server using a OpenTextFaxServer
task.
D. Use a third party application with a scanner for the remote user who then upload the images to
a network folder which is ingested by a
RuleRunner server using VScan task.

Answer: A

Explanation:

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QUESTION 4
An IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture system is being architected to support a large capture
processing operation consisting of 500 dedicated Taskmaster web users located in the same
facility. What is the minimum recommended number of Microsoft IIS instances?

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five

Answer: D

Explanation:

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QUESTION 5
The solution designer is creating a standalone FastDoc application and needs to add a workflow.
What construct is created to contain the workflow?

A. Task Profile
B. Batch Profile
C. Batch monitor
D. FastApp template

Answer: B

Explanation:

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