Tuesday, 25 July 2017

C2090-635 IBM Cognos 10 BI OLAP Developer

Test information:
Number of questions: 65
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 76%
Languages: English, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Advanced Developer - Risk Information Governance for BI
IBM Certified Solution Expert - Cognos BI
IBM Certified Developer - Cognos 10 BI OLAP Models

The Cognos 10 BI OLAP Developer exam covers key concepts, technologies, and functionality of the Cognos products. In preparation for an exam, we recommend a combination of training and hands-on experience, and a detailed review of product documentation.

Transformer Basics (5%)
Describe the Transformer development process

Data Sources (12%)
Identify data sources for use in Transformer
Describe the use of multiple data sources
Describe uniqueness

Model Creation (17%)
Describe the process to build a basic Transformer model
Describe the implementation of a time dimension
Describe how to make data available in the Cognos 10 studios

Model Key Performance Measures (12%)
Differentiate between measures
Describe the use of measures

Security (12%)
Describe the IBM Cognos 10 security environment
Describe how to secure a PowerCube

PowerCube Content Customization (20%)
Define techniques to customize dimensions
Describe the process to customize PowerCube content

Maintenance and Advanced Techniques (22%)
Describe techniques for model maintenance
Describe how to update published PowerCubes and PowerCube connections
Identify ways to trouble shoot issues
Identify considerations for optimization
Describe changes that impact MUNs

QUESTION 1
What should a developer do if some levels appear red after validating the model using Show Scope?

A. Ensure the level exists in the data source.
B. Specify a valid relationship between the level and the data source.
C. Re-attach the categories in the Dimension Diagram.
D. Apply unique move to the level and regenerate the categories.

Answer: B


QUESTION 2
When measures are calculated after rollup, when are the calculations performed?

A. Before time state rollup takes place.
B. After allocated measures are calculated.
C. Before regular rollup takes place on all measures.
D. After relative time calculations.

Answer: B


QUESTION 3
What objects can be created within the Cognos Namespace?

A. Roles and users
B. Groups and roles
C. Groups and users
D. Members

Answer: B


QUESTION 4
Transformer is unable to locate one of the source files for a data source in the model, and
the model update fails. Which type of files can be used to restart the processing at the point of failure?

A. .py?
B. .qy?
C. .mdl
D. .mdx

Answer: B

Monday, 17 July 2017

Exam 70-696 Administering System Center Configuration Manager and Intune

Published: January 23, 2015
Languages: English, Spanish, Chinese (Simplified), Chinese (Traditional), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil)
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Windows 8.1, Windows Server 2012 R2, Microsoft Intune
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSE

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.

If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft Certification exams or about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact your Regional Service Center.

As of February 2016, this exam was updated to reflect Windows 10 scenarios, requirements, and any related service pack updates. To learn more about these changes and how they affect the skills measured, please download and review the Exam 70-696 change document.

Deploy and manage virtual applications (10–15%)
Prepare virtual applications
Sequence applications, install and configure the sequencer environment, prepare applications for deployment in different environments, configure virtual application interaction and sharing
Manage application virtualization environments
Configure App-V, manage application cache, configure System Tray/SFTTray.exe switches, configure application extensions with virtualized applications, configure application settings using group policies
Deploy and manage RemoteApp
Configure RemoteApp and Desktop Connections settings, configure Group Policy Objects (GPOs) for signed packages, subscribe to the RemoteApp and Desktop Connections feeds, support iOS and Android, configure Remote Desktop web access for RemoteApp distribution, configure and deploy Azure RemoteApp

Deploy and manage desktop and mobile applications (15–20%)
Plan an application distribution strategy
Considerations, including impact on clients due to offline access, deployment infrastructure, and remote locations; choose the appropriate application distribution method; plan to distribute applications to mobile devices, including Windows Phone, iOS, and Android, by using Microsoft Intune; plan to distribute applications to devices including Windows Store Apps
Deploy applications using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager
Choose and configure deployment types, configure user device affinity, configure requirements, manage the software library and application catalog
Deploy applications using Microsoft Intune
Choose between automatic and manual deployment, configure application deployment policies, add software packages, configure the company portal
Plan for application upgrades
Considerations, including application version co-existence, compatibility issues, and migrating application settings and configurations; re-sequence/redeploy applications
Monitor applications
Monitor offline application usage; monitor real-time sessions; monitor application licensing usage; configure Asset Intelligence in Configuration Manager; monitor applications, using Software Center
Manage content distribution
Manage distribution points, distribution point groups, and Content Library; monitor log files

Plan and implement software updates (15–20%)
Plan and deploy third-party updates
Plan for third-party support, integrate System Center Updates Publisher with Configuration Manager
Deploy software updates by using Configuration Manager and Windows Server Update Services (WSUS)
Configure software update point synchronization to Windows Update, use reports and In Console Monitoring to identify required updates, create update groups, create and monitor deployments, analyze log files, configure Automatic Deployment Rules (ADR), provide secondary access to Windows Update, configure GPO settings
Servicing Windows using Microsoft Intune and the Windows as a Service Model
Use reports and In Console Monitoring to identify required updates, approve or decline updates, configure automatic approval settings, configure deadlines for update installations, deploy Microsoft and non-Microsoft updates, plan for a service branch

Manage compliance and Endpoint Protection settings (15–20%)
Build a Configuration Item (CI)
Create a CI, import a CI, set CI versioning, remediate rules
Create and monitor a baseline
Deploy a baseline, import a configuration pack, build a custom baseline
Configure Endpoint Protection
Create and manage the Endpoint Protection policy; configure definitions within the client policy; export policies; choose which template to use; select exclusions; configure Endpoint Protection, using Microsoft Intune; use In Console Monitoring to monitor client compliance

Manage Configuration Manager clients (15–20%)
Deploy and manage the client agent
Identify deployment methods, manage client agent settings
Manage collections
Plan the collection structure; define rules for collections; customize collection-specific settings, including maintenance windows and power management
Configure and monitor client status
Configure client status settings, use In Console Monitoring to determine client health, configure alert thresholds, configure client health auto-remediation

Manage inventory using Configuration Manager (10–15%)
Manage hardware and software inventory
Extend hardware inventory WMI classes, export and import WMI class settings, configure standardized vendor names, analyze the identified inventory and generate reports
Manage software metering
Create software metering rules, enable or disable auto-generated rules, report software metering results
Create reports
Clone and modify reports, create custom reports, import and export reports, manage asset intelligence, install the asset intelligence sync point, enable the WMI classes, modify categories and labels, analyze reports

Provision and manage mobile devices (10–15%)
Integrate Configuration Manager with the Exchange ActiveSync Connector
Configure and apply ActiveSync policies, view inventory on mobile devices, configure connection to an on-premises or Hosted Exchange server environment, monitor the Exchange connector log file
Manage devices with Microsoft Intune
Provision user accounts, enroll devices, integrate Microsoft Intune with Configuration Manager, view and manage all managed devices, configure the Microsoft Intune subscriptions, configure the Microsoft Intune connector site system role, manage profiles and conditional access by using Microsoft Intune
Manage connection profiles, by using Configuration Manager
Configure Remote Desktop profiles, certificate profiles, email profiles, and Wi-Fi profiles




Question 1
You need to recommend a deployment solution for App6.
What is the best recommendation? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
Select the BEST answer.

B. a local installation
C. a RemoteApp program
D. a Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) package

Answer: D


Question 2
You need to resolve the Windows update issue.
What should you do?

A. Modify the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in Active Directory.
B. Synchronize software updates from Configuration Manager.
C. Create an automatic deployment rule.
D. Add distribution points to each branch office.

Answer: D




Question 3
You need to ensure that the personal devices that run Windows 8.1 meet the corporate
security policy requirements.
What should you do first?

A. Create a federated trust with Windows Azure Active Directory.
B. Create a federated identity relationship with the Microsoft Federation Gateway.
C. Enroll the device in Windows Intune.
D. Join the devices to the domain by using an offline domain join.

Answer: C




Question 4
You need to make App4 available to all of the users.
What should you do?

A. Package App4 as an MSI package and upload the installer to Windows Intune.
B. Sequence App4 and use streaming delivery.
C. Deploy App4 as a Configuration Manager package.
D. Deploy App4 to a Remote Desktop Session Host (RD Session Host) server.

Answer: D

Thursday, 6 July 2017

RC0-903 CompTIA A+ Recertification Exam

Exam Codes RC0-903
Launch Date July 7, 2016
Eligibility Candidates MUST have:

An active A+ CE certification earned by passing exams from the 800-series or earlier.

Received an email from CompTIA containing a Private Access Code (PAC).

Exam Description The CompTIA A+ Recertification Exam covers these domains:
1.0 Mobile Devices (6% of total)
2.0 Windows Operating Systems (20% of total)
3.0 Other Operating Systems and Technologies (11% of total)
4.0 Troubleshooting (Hardware/Software) (59% of total)
5.0 Operational Procedures (4% of total)

Recertification Exam Objectives Download
Number of Questions 50
Type of Questions Multiple choice questions (single and multiple response)
Length of Test 75 Minutes
Passing Score 700 (on a scale of 900)
Delivery Non-proctored Pearson IBT
CEU Impact

Only candidates with an active A+ CE certification will receive CEU credit.
Passing the exam will automatically renew your existing A+ CE. Please allow 1-3 days for your record to be updated.

Introduction The CompTIA A+ Recertification Exam is one way for CompTIA A+ certified professionals to keep their A+ certification active. A CompTIA A+ certification earned on or after January 1, 2011 is valid for three years from the date the certification was earned. The certification must be renewed within three years in order for the individual to remain certified. To remain certified, individuals may:
 Re-take (and pass) both of the current certification exams (220-901 and 220-902)
 Participate in continuing education activities
 Take (and pass) the A+ re-certification exam (RC0-903) The CompTIA A+ Recertification Exam RC0-903 bridges the competencies measured by the A+ 800 series (220-801 and 220-802) and the 900 series (220-901 and 220-902). The exam (RC0-903) blueprint includes the objectives new to the 900 series and also assesses the highest weighted competencies that appear on both sets of exams
(i.e., the knowledge and skills rated by SMEs as most relevant for on - the - job performance). NOTE: Availability of RC0-903 is LIMITED TO THOSE who have kept their A+ certification active and have not taken and passed the current 900 series exams.

CompTIA A+ is accredited by ANSI to show compliance with the ISO 17024 Standard and, as such, undergoes regular reviews and updates to the exam objectives. The following CompTIA A+ Recertification RC0-903 exam objectives result from subject matter expert workshops and industry - wide survey results regarding the skills and knowledge required of an entry - level IT technical support
professional.

This examination blueprint includes domain weighting, test objectives, and example content. Example topics and concepts are included to clarify the test objectives and should not be construed as a comprehensive listing of all the content of this examination.
Candidates are encouraged to use this document to guide their studies. The table below lists the domains measured by this examination and the extent to which they are represented. The CompTIA A+
RC0-903 exam is based on these objectives.

QUESTION 1 – (Topic 1)
A user reports that the cursor jumps to random screen locations when typing on a laptop computer. Which of the following devices is MOST likely causing this?
A. The touchpad
B. The mouse wheel
C. The multimedia keys
D. The digitizer
Answer: A

QUESTION 2 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following would need to be enabled on a mobile phone to share its Internet connection with multiple devices simultaneously?
A. NFC
B. Bluetooth
C. Hotspot
D. Tethering
Answer: C

QUESTION 3 – (Topic 1)
A customer asks a technician for a device that has the capability to easily connect a laptop to an external monitor, keyboard, mouse, and charge the battery. Which of the following devices should the technician recommend to the customer?
A. Lightning
B. KVM switch
C. USB 3.0
D. Docking station
Answer: D


Wednesday, 21 June 2017

C2090-552 IBM InfoSphere Optim for Distributed Systems Fundamentals

Test information:
Number of questions: 65
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 75%
Languages: English, Japanese

This certification exam certifies that the successful candidate has important knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to plan, install, configure, troubleshoot, administer and maintain an IBM InfoSphere Optim Data Growth, Optim Decommissioning, Test Data Management, or Test Data Management with Data Privacy option on a Distributed System.

Section 1 - Installation and Configuration (25%)
Optim Architecture
Operating Systems/Hardware support
Database Support
Establishing Environments
Optim Directories (location, numbers, owners)
Confirming installation pre-reqs
Physical installations
Security
Initializing
Enabling
Configuring
Archive / Extract Maintenance
File locations/sub-systems
File naming / sizing

Section 2 - Optim Core Functionality (35%)
Data Growth
Archive
Delete
Restore
Decommissioning
Test Data Management
Extract / Insert
Edit
Compare
Data Privacy Functions (when to use which ones)
Convert
Privacy Functions
Access Definitions
Relationships

Section 3 - Advanced Topics (34%)
Enterprise Integration
Security
Storage
Automation (i.e. Command Line)
Import/Export OPTIM DDL
Archive Files (i.e., location, collections, moving, registering, creating, managing index files)
Optim Connect
Archive Collections
Archive Indexes
Archive File Maintenance
Complex Data Model Traversals
Extended Data Sources
InfoSphere Federation Server
Optim Connect
Non-Enforced Referential Integrity
Column Maps and Exits

Section 4 - Performance and Troubleshooting (6%)
Log Files, Trace Files and Statistical Reports
Relationships (i.e., delete strategy, OPTIM relationships, Forced Key/Scan Lookups, Scans, Threads)

Relationship Index Analysis

IBM Certified Specialist - InfoSphere Optim for Distributed Systems v9.1

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This certification exam certifies that the successful candidate has important knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to plan, install, configure, troubleshoot, administer and maintain an IBM InfoSphere Optim Solutions v9.1.

This includes:
* product installation and configuration
* Optim Core Functionality
* LUA
* Optim Search
* Masking on Demand
* Service on Demand
* New Database features and functionality
* performance and tuning

The person performing these functions is generally self-sufficient and is able to perform most of the tasks involved in the role with limited assistance from peers, product documentation and vendor support services.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

Hands-on experience with installing, configuring and using InfoSphere Optim on Distributed Systems

IBM Certified Specialist - InfoSphere Optim for Distributed Systems Fundamentals

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This intermediate level certification is intended for application developers, database administrators, and technical personnel who perform the installation, configuration and day-to-day tasks associated with ensuring the smooth and efficient operation of InfoSphere Optim environment.

This includes:
* product installation and configuration
* configuration of security
* archive and extract maintenance
* archiving and Optim Connect
* decommissioning
* creation and maintenance of test data
* privatizing data
* accessing extended data sources using Optim Connect and InfoSphere Federation Server
* implementing a test data management environment
* performance and tuning

The person performing these functions is generally self-sufficient and is able to perform most of the tasks involved in the role with limited assistance from peers, product documentation and vendor support services.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Familiarity with Optim Manuals
Hands-on experience with installing, configuring, and using Optim on Distributed Systems



QUESTION 1
You can use the silent installer in a UNIX environment to install the Optim Server. The silent
installer is NOT available for which two of the following platforms? (Choose two.)

A. HP-UX 11i v2
B. Red Hat Linux 3
C. IBM AIX 5
D. Solaris 8
E. SUSE 10

Answer: B,D

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
When installing Optim, what is the minimum disk space needed for the database?

A. 50gb
B. 50mb
C. As required
D. 500mb

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
You are planning an installation of IBM Optim. Which two configurations are supported for the
Optim Server and Optim Directory? (Choose two.)

A. DB2 database running on Ubuntu Linux
B. DB2 or Oracle databases running on AIX
C. Oracle or Microsoft SQL Server databases running on AIX
D. DB2 or Informix databases running on Sun Solaris
E. DB2 or Microsoft Access databases running on Windows XP Professional

Answer: B,D

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about Optim security roles? (Choose two.)

A. Functional Privilege classes such as Create New Actions and Create New Definitions can be
controlled using Roles.
B. Privileges such as Archive Request and Compare Request can be controlled using Roles
C. By default, the Access Control Domain allows access to all Optim Actions and privileges. Only
denial of privileges can be assigned using roles.
D. Default Roles may not be modified to allow or deny Functional Privilege Classes and New
Action Privileges.
E. Edit the FAD (File Access Definition) to control which roles has access to all of the files.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

Wednesday, 7 June 2017

C7020-230 IBM Watson V3 Application Development

Test information:
Number of questions: 63
Time allowed in minutes: 105
Required passing score: 71%
Languages: English, , Japanese

Section 1 - Fundamentals of Cognitive Computing
Define the main characteristics of a cognitive system
Explain neural nets
Explain machine learning technologies (supervised, unsupervised, reinforcement learning approaches)
Define a common set of use cases for cognitive systems
Define Precision, Recall, and Accuracy
Explain the importance of separating training, validation and test data
Measure accuracy of service
Define types of entities, relationships and co-references
Define Intents and Classes

Section 2 - Use cases of Cognitive Services
Select appropriate combination of cognitive technologies based on use-case and data format
Explain the uses of IBM Watson services available in the Application Starter Kits�
Describe the IBM Watson Conversation service
Explain use cases for integrating external systems such as Twitter, Weather API
Describe the IBM Watson Discovery service

Section 3 - Fundamentals of IBM Watson Developer Cloud
Distinguish cognitive services on IBM Watson Developer Cloud for which training is required or not
Provide examples of text classification using the IBM Watson Natural Language Classifier
Explain the IBM Watson SDKs available as part of the services on the IBM Watson Developer Cloud
Explain the IBM Watson REST APIs available as part of the services on the IBM Watson Developer Cloud
Explain and configure the IBM Watson Natural Language Classificer service
Explain and configure the IBM Watson Visual Recognition service
Explain and execute the IBM Watson Personality Insight service
Explain how the BM Watson Tone Analyzer service works
Explain, setup, configure and query the IBM Watson Discovery service
Explain and configure the IBM Watson Conversation service

Section 4 - Developing Cognitive applications using IBM Watson Developer Cloud
Call an IBM Watson service to analyze content
Describe the tasks required to implement the IBM Watson Conversational Agent / Digital Bot
Manipulate service outputs for consumption by other services
Define common design patterns for composing multiple IBM Watson services together
Explain the process to provision and use an instance of an IBM Watson Bluemix service instance
Explain the advantages of using IBM Bluemix as the cloud platform for Cognitive application development and deployment

Section 5 - Administration & DevOps for applications using IBM Watson services
Describe the process of obtaining credentials for IBM Watson services

Examine error logs provided by services

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This intermediate level technical professional is an individual who understands concepts essential to the development of applications using IBM Watson services. They have experience using the IBM Bluemix Platform-as-a-Service offering and are able to consume IBM Watson services in an application. This individual is able to perform these tasks with little to no assistance from product documentation, support or peers.

Key Areas of Competency:
Fundamentals of IBM Watson services
Use cases of Cognitive Services
Developing cognitive applications using IBM Watson services
Administering applications using IBM Watson services

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Working knowledge of developing an application using IBM Watson services
Working knowledge of core Cloud services (monitoring, logging, scaling), and security
Working knowledge with designing, developing and deploying RESTful APIs
Working knowledge of use cases using IBM Watson services
Working knowledge of cognitive concepts such as intent, relationships, entities, and ground truth
Working knowledge of the application starter kits and demos available on the IBM Watson Developer Cloud
Working knowledge of open technologies like CloudFoundry and Git like repositories
Basic knowledge of application development using common web technologies such as Node.js, Javascript, HTML, and css
Basic knowledge of machine learning methods and technologies

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).

Test(s) required:

Click on the link(s) below to see test details, test objectives, suggested training and sample tests.

Test C7020-230 - IBM Watson V3 Application Development

Open Badge Program
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QUESTION 1
Which type of learning do regression, support vector machines, and Bayesian classifiers typically fall under?

A. cognitive learning
B. supervised learning
C. unsupervised learning
D. reinforcement learning

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What information does the IBM Watson Natural Language Understanding service extract from html, text, or web-based content when it analyzes entities?

A. text and title information
B. people, companies, organizations
C. topic keywords
D. subject-action-object relations

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Why would the data crawler be used with the IBM Watson Discovery service?

A. The data crawler automates the upload of content to the Discovery service.
B. Use the data crawler when structured data must be mined from other services.
C. When working with the tooling, the data crawler can be used to upload sample documents.
D. When there is a business need to dynamically crawl websites, Twitter and constantly changing content.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Reference https://www.ibm.com/watson/developercloud/doc/discovery/data-crawler.html

QUESTION 4
In a neural network, what is the name of the region marked with a question mark?


A. Hidden Layer
B. Computational Layer
C. Cognitive Layer
D. Intelligence Layer

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What is the formula for recall in a classification system?

A. True Positives/ (True Positives+False Negatives)
B. True Positives/ (True Positives+False Positives)
C. False Positives/ (True Negatives+False Negatives)
D. True Positives/ (True Positives+True Negatives)

Answer: A


Wednesday, 26 April 2017

C2070-983 IBM Content Navigator V2.0.2, Solution Designer

Test information:
Number of questions: 57
Time allowed in minutes: 120
Required passing score: 66%
Languages: English

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Solution Designer - Content Navigator V2.0.2

The test contains seven sections, totaling 66 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.

Section 1 - Architecture, Concepts and Functionalities (30%)
Demonstrate knowledge of ICN architecture
Demonstrate understanding of ICN key functionalities
Demonstrate understanding of Search
Demonstrate understanding of Browse
Demonstrate understanding of Teamspaces
Demonstrate understanding of Workflows
Demonstrate understanding of Viewers
Demonstrate understanding of ICN mobile functionality
Demonstrate an understanding of ICN prerequisites

Section 2 - Requirements Analysis and Solution Design (16%)
Demonstrate the ability to identify applicable ICN features and extention points
Demonstrate understanding of provisioning Desktops to support business goals
Show knowledge in determining security requirements
Show knowledge in determing overall system component architecture

Section 3 - Configuring and Customizing ICN (26%)
Demonstrate knowledge of ICN repository configuration
Show knowledge of Desktop customization
Demonstrate a knowledge of Appearance customization
Demonstrate a knowledge of Menu customization
Demonstrate knowledge of mobile features configuration
Demonstrate an understanding of Teamspace self-provisioning

Section 4 - Extending ICN (23%)
Demonstrate knowledge of technologies used for plugin development
Demonstrate a knowledge of plug-in architecture and functionalities
Demonstrate knowledge of External Data Services (EDS)
Demonstrate knowledge of distinguishing EDS from a Filter Plug-in
Demonstrate an understanding of technologies used for mobile development
Demonstrate an understanding of workflow extention points

Section 5 - Solution Testing and Deployment (5%)
Explain the steps required to move a solution between dev, test and production environments

Show knowledge of ICN logging and basic troubleshooting

IBM Certified Solution Designer - Content Navigator V2.0.2

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This intermediate level certification test certifies that the successful candidate has the knowledge to create the theoretical and/or detailed technical design of an application, solution, infrastructure using IBM Content Navigator V2.0.2. Provide expertise to evaluate and choose between alternatives; assist with balancing costs with capabilities and priorities. Identify products / technologies / processes to be included, and determine points of required integration and customization. Identify sizing and capacity issues, as well as conflicts with existing processes or environments.

The person performing these functions is generally self-sufficient and is able to perform most of the tasks involved in the role with limited assistance from peers or support services.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Before preparing for this certification, basic understanding of the following is recommended and assumed for your environment:

Knowledge of Content Navigator components: Browsing, Search, and Workflow, Administration, Teamspaces
Knowledge of IBM Enterprise Content Management base platforms
Knowledge of databases
Knowledge of Content Management Interoperability Services (CMIS)
Knowledge of application servers
Knowledge of developing Web 2.0/Ajax applications
Knowledge of iOS mobile platform
Knowledge of mobile application development
Knowledge of High-Level Architecture of ICN (Different Layers)
Knowledge of plug-ins and Extension Points


Thursday, 20 April 2017

C2070-588 IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture V8.1 Solution Design

Test information:
Number of questions: 62
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 63%
Languages: English

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Solution Designer - Datacap Taskmaster Capture V8.1

The test contains five sections, totaling 62 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.

Section 1 - Datacap Taskmaster Architecture (14%)
Demonstrate understanding of Datacap Taskmaster architecture
Explain general architecture
Explain capacity planning and load balancing configuration
Demonstrate an understanding of distributed environments
Demonstrate knowledge of Datacap Taskmaster Components
Identify minimum installation requirements
Demonstrate knowledge of Datacap Taskmaster databases
Demonstrate knowledge of Datacap Taskmaster application offerings

Section 2 - Analyze Business Requirements (16%)
Determine what information to gather from images
Identify ingestion sources
Determine business validation rules
Demonstrate understanding of export requirements
Determine security requirements
Determine reporting requirements

Section 3 - Design a Datacap Taskmaster Solution (27%)
Demonstrate knowledge of creating Datacap document hierarchy
Analyze job and task design
Demonstrate knowledge of ingestion
Demonstrate knowledge of document conversions
Demonstrate knowledge of page identification
Demonstrate knowledge of recognition methodology
Demonstrate knowledge of validation techniques
Demonstrate knowledge of user interfaces
Demonstrate knowledge of export approaches
Demonstrate knowledge of FastDoc
Demonstrate knowledge of RuleRunner
Demonstrate knowledge of Datacap Taskmaster component distribution/location

Section 4 - Develop Application and Solution Components (33%)
Identify uses of NENU
Demonstrate understanding of RV2
Demonstrate understanding of RuleRunner
Demonstrate knowledge of using FastDoc admin
Demonstrate understanding of Datacap Studio
Demonstrate knowledge of Studio AppWizard
Demonstrate knowledge of how to develop Task Profiles
Demonstrate knowledge of how to develop rulesets
Demonstrate knowledge of applying rules to Datacap Document Hierarchy (DCO)
Demonstrate understanding of web administration
Demonstrate knowledge of custom components
Demonstrate knowledge of User interfaces
Demonstrate knowledge of Actions
Demonstrate knowledge of Reports
Demonstrate knowledge of using SmartParameters
Demonstrate knowledge of upgrading Datacap solutions

Section 5 - Solution Testing and Deployment (10%)
Demonstrate knowledge of performing solution testing
Demonstrate knowledge on how to use the test module in Datacap Studio
Explain steps required to move solution between deployment targets
Demonstrate ability to enable logging for all the components

IBM Certified Solution Designer - Datacap Taskmaster Capture V8.1

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This intermediate level certification test certifies that the successful candidate has the knowledge to create the theoretical and/or detailed technical design of an application, solution, and infrastructure using IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture V8.1. Provide expertise to evaluate and choose between alternatives; assist with balancing costs with capabilities and priorities. Identify products / technologies / processes to be included, and determine points of required integration and customization. Identify sizing and capacity issues, as well as conflicts with existing processes or environments.

To attain the IBM Certified Solution Designer - Datacap Taskmaster Capture V8.1 certification, candidates must pass 1 test. To gain additional knowledge and skills, and prepare for the tests based on the job roles and test objectives, click on the link for Test 000-588 below.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

Before preparing for this certification, basic understanding of the following is recommended and assumed:

Knowledge of IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture components: FastDoc, Taskmaster Web and Task Master Web Administrator, RV2, DotEdit, DotScan, Dstudio, RuleRunner, NENU
Ability to write actions for IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture: VBScript, C#
Knowledge of Microsoft IIS
Knowledge of Out-of-the-Box component interfaces.
Knowledge of content acquisition: import, fax, email and scan
Knowledge of document and image conversion
Knowledge of document hierarchy
Knowledge of document and page identification
Knowledge of recognition
Knowledge of routing: branching, jumping and splitting
Knowledge of verification and validation
Knowledge of export and repositories
Knowledge of databases
QUESTION 2
A customer has images that have machine print as well as handwritten data on the image. Is it
necessary to have an OCR_s or OCR_a engine as well as an ICR engine to extract/read data
from the image, and why?

A. Yes, both OCR_s and ICR_c engines will have to be used.
B. No, ICR_c engine works well with hand-printed and machine-printed text.
C. No, OCR_s engine works well with hand-printed and machine-printed text.
D. No, OCR_a is the only engine that can read hand-printed and machine-printed text.

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
A customer has remote users that will be scanning in paper documents for their IBM Datacap
Taskmaster applications outside of their office network. What is the BEST method of ingestion for
the customer's application?

A. Use the Taskmaster Web client to scan and then upload the documents, using a TWAIN driver .
B. Use Taskmaster DotScan using ISIS or TWAIN scanner for the remote user to scan in new
batches.
C. Use a fax machine where remote user fax images to a Rightfax server which is ingested by a
RuleRunner server using a OpenTextFaxServer
task.
D. Use a third party application with a scanner for the remote user who then upload the images to
a network folder which is ingested by a
RuleRunner server using VScan task.

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
An IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture system is being architected to support a large capture
processing operation consisting of 500 dedicated Taskmaster web users located in the same
facility. What is the minimum recommended number of Microsoft IIS instances?

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 5
The solution designer is creating a standalone FastDoc application and needs to add a workflow.
What construct is created to contain the workflow?

A. Task Profile
B. Batch Profile
C. Batch monitor
D. FastApp template

Answer: B

Explanation: